halcombe
2004-10-05 04:24:55 UTC
A term of art in some US jurisdictions, I believe, for a variety of
plea to criminal charges - aka "no contest" is "nolo contendere": I
do not wish to contest (or something of the sort).
Yet, reading a piece
http://www.suntimes.com/output/sachs/sho-sunday-sax03.html
on the travails of Dan Rather, I find the expression spelt as "no lo
contendere". And Google pulls up 200 items thus spelt including, for
instance,
http://www.hr.upenn.edu/recruitment/recruitment_forms/upennapp.pdf
a job application form for the University of Pennsylvania educator,
educate thyself!
Does any thought go into the misspelling? Is the phrase supposed to
from Spanish or Italian in which "no" and "lo" are at least present?
Or is it just ignorance?
(Does the "Sun-Times" spellchecker not have the correct spelling? Or
isn't it used, I wonder?)
plea to criminal charges - aka "no contest" is "nolo contendere": I
do not wish to contest (or something of the sort).
Yet, reading a piece
http://www.suntimes.com/output/sachs/sho-sunday-sax03.html
on the travails of Dan Rather, I find the expression spelt as "no lo
contendere". And Google pulls up 200 items thus spelt including, for
instance,
http://www.hr.upenn.edu/recruitment/recruitment_forms/upennapp.pdf
a job application form for the University of Pennsylvania educator,
educate thyself!
Does any thought go into the misspelling? Is the phrase supposed to
from Spanish or Italian in which "no" and "lo" are at least present?
Or is it just ignorance?
(Does the "Sun-Times" spellchecker not have the correct spelling? Or
isn't it used, I wonder?)