Post by neoholisticx-no-archive: yes
snip
snip
Why isn't this "dixit angelo"? Is this an example of "church latin"
departure from classical latin?
So it would appear. Dico + ad + accusative-of-person has a specialised
meaning in classical Latin. This from Lewis & Short (dico: I.B.3.b):
With ad and acc. pers., to plead before a person or tribunal: ad unum
judicem, Cic. Opt. Gen. 4, 10 : ad quos? ad me, si idoneus videor qui
judicem, etc., id. Verr. 2, 2, 29, § 72 ; Liv. 3, 41.--
In Ecclesiastical Latin, "Dico (say, tell) takes either a dative of
indirect object or ad + accusative" (Collins, p.60).
A Vulgate example of the classical dative construction is:
"Dixit Dominus Domino meo" in the first verse of Psalm 109:
http://www.the-orb.net/encyclop/religion/hagiography/psalter/ps109.htm
Johannes